Thursday, January 3, 2013

Mortgage Debt as Percent Household Debt

Marginal propensity to buy a house.
Household mortgage debt to total household debt.

5 comments:

  1. Pretty interesting graph there. Household debt was going up all the while, but housing appears to have alternated with other priorities. Not what I would have expected.

    Also, there may have been a stable range until the mid-1980s, when the pattern takes on a decided upward slant.

    Hey, I have an off-topic question for ya. You do a lot of graphs, things I never looked at. What would you use to get a graph of "wage share in the U.S." or "compensation of employees as a share of personal income"

    I guess PI, personal income. And I've looked at "compensataion of employees" but I don't remember where I got the data and I don't think FRED has it.

    The reason I ask -- I made a couple comments at Naked Keynesianism here:

    http://nakedkeynesianism.blogspot.com/2013/01/wage-share-in-us-1959-2011.html

    and I can't say much else about the graph there unless I look at the numbers. Any ideas?

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  2. Oh, the guy got back to me.
    W209RC1
    is compensation of employees
    (and FRED does have it, of course.)
    Thanks anyway.

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  3. Art,

    The mid-1980s is a time period I have had difficulty understanding in regards to various economic trends: saving and loans crisis, Reaganomics, and oil price collapse all come to mind as contributors to any trend in that general timeframe.

    In regards to the NK post: it looks like the 1970 and 1975 recessions had impacts on the 'wage compensation' portion of personal income. Certainly there was a change in personal saving and personal saving after 1980 - corresponding to lower interest rates on saving accounts.

    One data set in the same series as W209RC1 that I like to look at is PCTR (personal current transfer receipts) - mainly composed of transfers from the government to the household sector. Definitely an interesting data series.

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  4. Thanks Luke. Looks like the PCTR roughly tripled as a percent of personal income over the full period. And the W209RC1 declined.

    I was a bit surprised by Matias reply at NK: "There is no trend in the 1970s..." he says. Granted, I just eyeballed his graph. But Matias and I read his graph two different ways.

    I think a lot of people put politics before graph-reading, and tend to see things in graphs that fit the "since Reagan" perspective.

    I guess I do the same, interpreting everything in terms of my view of the growing dominance of finance.

    Oh well :)

    Thanks for the FRED help.

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